Question on theory: If $\lim_{x\to a^+}F(x)=L$ and $\lim_{x\to a^-}F(x)$ doesn't exist, then does the $\lim_{x\to a}F(x)$ exists and is $L$?
Thanks.
Question on theory: If $\lim_{x\to a^+}F(x)=L$ and $\lim_{x\to a^-}F(x)$ doesn't exist, then does the $\lim_{x\to a}F(x)$ exists and is $L$?
Thanks.
It depends on what you mean $\lim_{x\to a^-}F(x)$ doesn't exist.
If $F$ is not defined in $(a-\delta,a)$ for no $\delta>0$ then $x$ can't approach $a$ from the left and $\lim_{x\to a^-}F(x)$ is not defined. If that's the case then, $\lim_{x\to a}F(x)$ exists and is $L$
If $F$ is defined in $(a-\delta,a)$ for some $\delta>0$ but $\lim_{x\to a^-}F(x)$ does not exist then $\lim_{x\to a}F(x)$ does not exist
If the function $F(x)$ has domain say $[a,b]$ where $b>a$, so that $F(x)$ is not even defined for $x
But many calculus texts insist on limits being defined on both sides of $a$ for the limit to be said to exist, and such texts would say only that the "one sided" limit exists.