Now with this rule, we know that always $C_1 \models C$ and $C_2 \models C$.
This isn't true. Let $C_1 = \{p,q\}$ and $C_2 = \{\lnot q, r\}$. Then $C = \{p, r \}$. It's not the case that $\{p,r\}$ must be true when $\{p,q\}$ is true. For instance, consider the truth assignment that makes $q$ true, and $p$ and $r$ false. Then $C_1$ is satisfied, but $C$ is not. Similarly, the truth assignment that makes $p$, $q$, and $r$ false satisfies $C_2$, but not $C$. However, any truth assignment that satisfies both $C_1$ and $C_2$ also satisfies $C$.
But, is it always true that $C \models C_1$ and $C \models C_2$?
No. For example, consider the truth assignment that makes $p$ and $q$ false, and $r$ true. This satisfies $C$, but not $C_1$. Similarly, the truth assignment that makes $p$ and $q$ true and $r$ false satisfies $C$, but not $C_2$. However, since every literal in $C$ is in either $C_1$ or $C_2$, any truth assignment that satisfies $C$ must satisfy at least one of $C_1$ and $C_2$.