I am told that $f'(f^{-1}(x))$ where $f(x) = \sin(x)$ and $f^{-1}(x) = \arcsin(x)$.
When I see $f'(f^{-1}(x))$, I instantly think of applying the chain rule since we have a composite of functions. However, my textbook does it differently; it does not apply the chain rule:
$f(x) = \sin(x)$
$\implies f'(x) = \cos(x)$
$\therefore f'(f^{-1}(x)) = f'(\arcsin(x)) = \cos(\arcsin(x))$.
I do not understand why the textbook does the above calculations instead of using the chain rule. I would greatly appreciate it if people could please take the time to clarify this and explain the reasoning behind the decision.