I am curious to know about the functions $f \colon \mathbb{R}^2_{\geq 0} \to \mathbb{R}_{\geq 0}$ that satisfy the following equality. For each $\{x,y,z\} \subseteq \mathbb{R}_{\geq 0}$,$$f( f(x,y), z) = f(x, f(y,z)).$$ Examples of such functions include
- $f_1(x,y) = 1$
- $f_2(x,y) = x$
- $f_3(x,y) = x + y + 1$
- $f_4(x,y) = xy$
- $f_5(x,y) = \max\{x,y\}$
- $f_6(x,y) = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2}$
In addition, I require $f(x,y) = f(y,x)$ (disqualifies $f_2$) and $f(x,0) = x$ (disqualifies $f_1$, $f_3$, $f_4$).
From the examples, my wild conjecture is that $f$ has to be homogeneous of degree 1, but I cannot prove this. Any pointers on how to proceed are much appreciated!
Edit: I was also considering the following related question.
Let $f$ be homogeneous of degree 1 and satisfy the additional requirements, so $f(x,y) = f(y,x)$ and $f(x,0) = x$. Does $f$ then satisfy the main equality, $f( f(x,y), z) = f(x, f(y,z))$?
This also turns out to be false; a counter-example is $f(x,y) = \sqrt{xy} + x + y$.