Let \begin{align}P_{\Sigma}= \left[ \begin{array}{cc} \lambda_iI-A & -B \\ C & 0 \\ \end{array} \right] \end{align} where $A\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$, $B\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times m}$ and $C\in\mathbb{R}^{p\times n}$. When $\lambda_i$, for $i=1,\dotsc, n-p$ are distinct, then the nullspaces of $P_{\Sigma}(\lambda_i)$ for $i=1,\dotsc, n-p$ are one dimensional subspaces of $\mathbb{R}^{n+p}$. This is a statement from the paper I am reading. I do not see Why when $\lambda_i$ are distinct the associated subspace is one dimensional? Please help me relate. Thank you.
Rosen brock matrix -nullspaces-subspaces
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0I think that you have not included all the required assumptions from the paper. I suppose that $\lambda_i$ is an eigenvalue of $A$ but you have not stated this explicitly. Also, if for example $C=0$ then clearly the null space is $p$-dimensional so some kind of condition on the $rank(C)$ must also hold. Things will become more clear if you cite the paper you are reading. – 2017-03-05
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0Thank you for your time, $C\neq 0$, the paper is Schmid, Robert, and Lorenzo Ntogramatzidis. "A unified method for the design of nonovershooting linear multivariable state-feedback tracking controllers." Automatica 46.2 (2010): 312-321. Page 314..statement is just below equation 9. – 2017-03-05
1 Answers
Note that $(9)$ follows after Assumptions 3.1 and 3.2 in Schmid-Ntogramatzidis (which is the paper OP is reading, see here). So by assumption we have $p = m$ and hence the Rosenbrock matrix $P_\Sigma(s)$ is $(p + n) \times (p + n)$. Note also that we use $B$ (rather than $-B$) and also we allow for a nonzero $D$ matrix.
The invariant zeros of the system $(A, B, C, D)$ are defined to be those $z \in \mathbb{C}$ such that the rank of $P_\Sigma(z)$ is less than its normal rank. The normal rank of $P(s)$ is $n + p$, as $\Sigma$ is assumed to be invertible, and hence the kernel is trivial (contains only the zero vector) for all $s \in \mathbb{C}$ that are not invariant zeros. For those invariant zeros, the rank of $P_\Sigma(z)$ is less than $n + p$ and hence the kernel is nontrivial. The assumption that "the zeros are distinct" means that these kernels are $1$-dimensional.
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0Thank you so much for your time and effort. I could follow all that you wrote ...except the last sentence. Can you please elaborate on "The assumption that "the zeros are distinct" means that these kernels are 1-dimensional." – 2017-03-09
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0what if there are two same invariant zero? – 2017-03-09