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Through a physics problem I ended up with a nonlinear second-order ODE, which can be written on the following form: $$(y_x)^2 + ay_x + b y^{-3} + \frac{1}{3} y y_{xx} = 0$$ If we solve for $y_x$, and apply the quadratic formula, we get $$y_x = \frac{1}{2} \left( -a \pm \sqrt{a^2 - 4\left( by^{-3} + \frac{1}{3}y y_{xx} \right)} \right)$$ which means that for a single set of values for $(y,y_{xx})$, there are two different values of $y_x$ that satisfy the ODE. I have never seen this before, and wondered what this would mean for solution uniqueness.

I happened to find an analytical solution, namely $$y_x = - \frac{b}{a} y^{-3}$$ I wondered which of the two $\pm$ solutions this corresponded to, and I found out that it was both. It corresponds to the plus-solution for small $y$, but at the point where $y_x$ has a single solution, it switches to the minus-solution.

For various reasons I wanted to implement numerical integration of such an equation. I defined $y_0 = y$ and $y_1 = y_x$, and set up the equivalent system of first order ODEs, $$ y_{0,x} = y_1 \\ y_{1,x} = -3 \frac{(y_1)^2}{y_0} - 3a \frac{y_1}{y_0} - 3by^{-4} $$ and integrated from an initial condition corresponding to the analytical solution. However, this did not give back the analytical solution. It only did up until the point where $y_x$ has a single solution. The numerical solution stuck to the plus-solution, and thus went off in a different direction.

The mechanism for how the ODE system picks out one of the solutions is a mystery to me. For physical reasons I know what the sign of $y_{xx}$ should be. The question then is, how can I formulate the set of 1st order ODEs so that the correct solution is integrated? The integration looks straigh forward (numerically), so how does it pick a "branch"?

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    I am not sure you have two different sets of solutions. You are considering $y$, $y'$ and $y''$ as if they were independent and they aren't. Your equations are saying so.2017-02-28
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    Just no - you have $y_{xx}$ on the right hand side.2017-02-28
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    Setting $y_x = p$ is probably a better way to get to a solution. $$ \frac{y}{3}p\frac{dp}{dy} +\frac{b}{y^3} +ap + p^2 = 0 $$2017-02-28
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    @RafaBudría I can agree that my analysis is sketchy. But, if i plot my analytical solution and my numerical solution, starting from the same initial condition, i get two different curves that are both solutions to the ODE (checked the numerical solution by finite difference). In this way I have two "sets" of solutions. They split off from each other when they reach the point where $y_x$ has a single solution.2017-02-28

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