Consider two different points $\alpha_1,\alpha_2\in\mathbb{C}$. Prove that every circle that passes through $\alpha_1,\alpha_2$; intersects every circle of $A$ orthogonally in two points, where $A=\{\{ z\in\mathbb{C}: \frac{|z-\alpha_1|}{|z-\alpha_2|}=r\}: r\in \mathbb{R}^+ \}$
Intersection between Apollonius circles and circles that passes through $\alpha_1$ and $\alpha_2$
2 Answers
Is it allowed to use inversions or the theory of pencils of circles? Or has it to be proved using just analytic geometry in the complex plane? The following is a prove that assumes one already knows the theory of pencils of circles. Otherwise I will post a different solution using just complex analytic geometry.
The set
$$A=\{\{ z\in\mathbb{C}: \frac{|z-\alpha_1|}{|z-\alpha_2|}=k\}: k\in \mathbb{R}^+ \})$$
is a pencil of circles. In fact from
$$\frac{|z-\alpha_1|}{|z-\alpha_2|}=k$$
we have
$$ |z-\alpha_1| = k |z-\alpha_2| $$
$$ (z-\alpha_1)( \overline{z}-\overline{\alpha_1}) = k^2 (z-\alpha_2)( \overline{z}-\overline{\alpha_2}) $$
$$ (z-\alpha_1)( \overline{z}-\overline{\alpha_1}) - k^2 (z-\alpha_2)( \overline{z}-\overline{\alpha_2}) = 0 $$
It is now clear that this is a nonintersecting pencil of circles. The two circles of zero radius
$$ (z-\alpha_1)( \overline{z}-\overline{\alpha_1}) = 0 $$
and
$$ (z-\alpha_2)( \overline{z}-\overline{\alpha_2}) = 0 $$
are its limiting points and correspond to the values $k=0$ (point $\alpha_1$) and $k=\infty$ (point $\alpha_2$). The radical axis is the perpendicular bisector of the segment $ \alpha_1\alpha_2$ defined by the two point-circles and it corresponds to $k=1$.
The locus of the centers of these circles is the line $ \alpha_1\alpha_2$.
Apart from the radical axis, every circle in this pencil contains the point $ \alpha_1 $ or $ \alpha_2 $.
The set B of all circles that pass through $\alpha_1$ and $\alpha_2$ is a pencil too, it is an intersecting circles pencil and its radical axis is the line $\alpha_1\alpha_2$.
From elementary geometry it is now immediate to conclude that every circle in pencil A intersects every circle in pencil B, because every circle in pencil A contains the point $\alpha_1$ or $\alpha_2$, so it must intersect every circle passing through $\alpha_1$ and $\alpha_2$.
We are done: the line of centers of pencil A is the radical axis of pencil B, so all the circles of pencil A are orthogonal to all circles of pencil B. The other way round: the line of centers of pencil B is the radical axis of pencil A.
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0Please, post the solution with complex analytic geometry, to make this post more complete. – 2017-03-23
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1I've just posted the other solution – 2017-03-24
The second solution to the question uses just analytic geometry in the complex plane. Is is possibile to proceed using two generic points $\alpha_1,\alpha_2\in\mathbb{C}$ as previously, but it is easier to choose two points on the real axis, let's say $\alpha_1=-d$ and $\alpha_2=d$, $d\in\mathbb{R}$. Obviously it is not restrictive, it is like changing reference frame. We have: $$ |z+d|=k|z-d|$$ $$ (z+d)(\overline{z}+d)= k^2(z-d)( \overline{z}-d) $$ $$ z\overline{z} +dz+d\overline{z}+d^2 = k^2(z\overline{z} -dz-d\overline{z}+d^2)$$ and finally $$ z\overline{z} - \frac{(k^2+1)d}{(k^2-1)}z- \frac{(k^2+1)d}{(k^2-1)}\overline{z}+d^2 = 0$$ This is the equation of the Apollonius circle that passes through $\alpha_1$ and $\alpha_2$ because it is known, and easy to proof, that the general equation of a circle is of the form $z\overline{z}+az+\overline{a}\overline{z}+b=0$ with $b\in \mathbb{R}$. The center is $-\overline{a}$ and the square of the radius is $a\overline{a}-b$. In our case, the center is $$z_A=\frac{(k^2+1)d}{(k^2-1)} $$ and it's radius squared is $$r_A^2=(\frac{(k^2+1)d}{(k^2-1)})^2-d^2$$.
Now let's find centers and radii of the circles that pass through $\alpha_1$ and $\alpha_2$. Their centers lie on the perpendicular bisector of the segment $α_1α_2$, that is the $y$ axis. A generic point on the $y$ axis, that is the center of one of the circles, is $$z_B=it, \; t\in\mathbb{R}$$ and its distance squared from $\alpha_1$ (or $\alpha_2$), that is the square of radius of the circle, is $$r_B^2=(d-it)\overline{(d-it)}=(d-it)(d+it) = d^2+t^2$$
The square of the distance between the centers is $$d_{AB}^2=(z_A-z_B)(\overline{z_A - z_B})= (\frac{(k^2+1)d}{(k^2-1)})^2+t^2$$
Now we remember from elementary geometry that intersecting circles are orthogonal if the sum of their radii squared equals the square of the distance between their centers, that is if $$r_A^2+r_B^2=d_{AB}^2$$ and indeed it is immediate to verify that this is true.