Prove that if $a \equiv b\ (\text{mod}\ 26)$, then $a^2 \equiv 2ab - b^2\ (\text{mod}\ 4)$.
So what I have done is that took $a= b + 26k$, used the value of $a$ and plugged it into $a^2 \equiv 2ab - b^2\ (\text{mod}\ 4)$
so it became
$b^2 + 52kb + (26k)^2 = b^2 + 52kb$
I know that $52kb$ and $(26k)^2$ will become 0 if I do mod 4. I just dont know how to write this in more formal form. I am sure, I am missing something very trivial.