$$\sum_{m=0}^q(n-m)\frac{(p+m)!}{m!}=\frac{(p+q+1)!}{q!}\left(\frac{n}{p+1}-\frac{q}{p+2}\right)$$
I thought of solving it by induction but am unable to fathom which variable should I apply induction principle upon. I thought of applying on q, but I am stuck. Please help.