In the lecture, the lecturer told us that there exist functions that have a 1-norm or a 2-norm but no infinity-norm. Or to be more formal:
- What are examples of functions satisfying $f \in \mathcal{L}_1$, $f \not\in \mathcal{L}_{\infty}$.
- Secondly what is an example of a function satisfying $f \in \mathcal{L}_2$, $f \not\in \mathcal{L}_{\infty}$.
- The last thing that I was wondering was that the lecturer also asked if we could come up with a function satisfying $f \in \mathcal{L}_2, \lim_{x\to\infty}f(x)=0$.
edit: For point 3 the function I found was $f(x)=\frac{1}{x+1}$ which satisfies the demand.
Where $\mathcal{L_p}$ is defined as $\left( \int_0^\infty x(t)^p dt \right)^{\frac{1}{p}}$, and in the case of $\mathcal{L_\infty}$ it's defined as $\sup_{t \geq 0}|x(t)|_\infty$.
To me it seems counterintuitive to think of a function with a finite integral, but without a supremum. Where is my thinking going astray? Or does it have to do with the domain that you specify for the function in some form or another?