I have something reminiscent to the renormalization techniques in quantum field theory. A story of infinities cancellation. We can pose the problem as the searching for the potential coming from some field: We have a field in an unidimensional problem $F(x)=1/(x-1)$. We need to calculate the potential difference between $0.5$ and $t$. We have a problem, the divergence at $x=1$, but we know that only the potential differences are physically meaningful.
$$\phi(t)-\phi(0.5)=\int_{0.5}^2\frac{1}{x-1}=\lim_{a \to 0^+}\left(\int_0^{1-a}\frac{1}{x-1}\mathrm dx+\int_{1+a}^t\frac{1}{x-1}\mathrm dx\right)=$$
$$=\lim_{a \to 0^+}\left(-\left[\log(1-x)\right]_{0.5}^{1-a}+\left[\log(x-1)\right]_{1+a}^t\right)=$$
$$=\lim_{a \to 0^+}\left(\log(1-1+a)-\log(0.5)+\log(t-1)-\log(1+a-1)\right)=$$
$$=\log(t-1)-\log0.5$$
Not sure whether or not I understand corrrectly the renormalization thecniques, the elemental-pedagogic examples I've seen have far more ingenuity, but the "hard" part of them is the infinity cancellation with limits.
However, in this forum every time a diverging integral appears, the point is dismissed as not defined no matter whether or not the divergence is between the integral limits.
What's the flaw in my reasoning?