($R$ has a $1$, of course.)
I have a few questions regarding my partial proof so far, as well as on how to finish the proof.
Let $\{F_i\}_{i\in I}$ be a collection of free $R$-modules. For each $F_i$, there exists some basis $A_i= \{a_{i,j}\}_{j\in J}$. Let $A:= \bigcup_I A_i$. There is an $R$-module $F(A)$ which is free on $A$. We may assume WLOG that $\{F_i\}_{i\in I}$ is pairwise disjoint. (Is this true? I need it for $f$ below to be well-defined.) Define the function $f: A\rightarrow \bigoplus_I F_i$ by $a_{i,j} \mapsto (s_t)_{t\in I}$ where $s_t =1$ if $t= i$ and $0$ otherwise. By the universal property of free modules, there exists a unique $R$-module homomorphism $g: F(A)\rightarrow \bigoplus_I F_i$ defined by $\sum_{i,j=1}^{k}r_{i,j}a_{i,j} =\sum_{i,j=1}^{k} r_{i,j}f(a_{i,j})$. (I don't think I defined this correctly. Do I need a double sum over $i$ and $j$?).
Now, I want to show that $g$ is bijective. I think this should be true, but I'm really lost here in the formal technicalities. How can I do this?
(Also, as a secondary question, how does one prove that module isomorphisms preserve free-ness? I'm actually just taking it for granted right now.)
I'd appreciate some help.