0
$\begingroup$

Consider the sequence of functions on $(0,\infty)$ given by

$$f_n(x)=\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^2}$$

Does the sequence converge pointwise? Does it converge uniformly?

My attempt: I can see that as $n\rightarrow\infty$, $f_n(x)\rightarrow 0$ for each $x$, so it must converge pointwise. For uniform convergence, we need that

$\sup_x\left|\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^2}-0\right|\rightarrow 0$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$. This appears to be the case, but am I wrong?

Any help appreciated!

  • 0
    The $\sup$ is not equal to $0$.2017-02-25
  • 0
    http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/588976/to-prove-that-f-nx-fracnx1n2x2-does-not-uniformly-converge-to-fx2017-02-25

1 Answers 1

3

Note that, for all $n$, $$f_n(x)=\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^2}\implies f_n(1/n)=\frac{1}{2}$$ As a result, $f_n$ cannot tend uniformly to $0$.