Let $p : E \to B$ be a covering map ; let $p(e_{0})=b_{0}$ . Show that $p_{*}(\pi_{1}(E,e_{0}))$ is a normal subgroup of $\pi_{1}(B,b_{0})$ if and only if every pair of point $e_{1},e_{2}$ of $p^{-1}(b_{0})$ there is an equivalence $h : E \to E$ with $h(e_{1})=e_{2}$
In this post , the symbol $f_{*}$ mean , given an continuous map $f : X \to Y$ then $f_{*} : \pi(X) \to \pi(Y)$ and $f_{*}([h]) = [f \cdot h]$ ( $(f \cdot h)(x) = f(h(x))$ ). We call two covering map :
$$p : E \to B$$ $$p' : E' \to B$$
is equivalence if exist a homeomorphism lifitng $h$ such that :
$$h : E' \to E$$
$$p \cdot h = p'$$