Let $I_1 = \displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{p-1}}{(1+x)^{p+q}} \mathrm{d}x$. We now substitute $x=\tan^2 \theta$ and thus, we get, $$I_1 = \int_{0}^{\pi/4} \frac{\tan^{2p-2} \theta}{\sec^{2p+2q} \theta} 2\tan \theta \sec^2 \theta \,\,\mathrm{d}\theta$$ $$=2\int_{0}^{\pi/4} \tan^{2p-1}\theta \sec^{2-2p-2q} \theta \,\,\mathrm{d}\theta$$ $$I_1 = 2\int_{0}^{\pi/4} \sin^{2p-1} \theta \cos^{2q-1}\theta\,\, \mathrm{d}\theta$$
Similarly, $$I_2 = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{x^{q+1}}{(1+x)^{p+q}}\mathrm{d}x = 2\int_{0}^{\pi/4} \cos^{2p-1} \theta \sin^{2q-1}\theta\,\, \mathrm{d}\theta$$
Now, using the fact that $\mathrm {B}(p,q) = 2\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \sin^{2p-1}\theta \cos^{2q-1}\theta\,\,\mathrm{d}\theta$, $$I_1 + I_2 \implies ?$$
Hope you can take it from here.