In the above question, I have mangaged to prove that $r_\varphi$ is a root of $f(x)$, namely, $f(\varphi(\overline{x}))=0$. So that can be used as a known fact. I am now trying to prove that the function mapping $\varphi$ to $r_\varphi$ is a bijection from the set of homomorphisms $\varphi$ to the set of roots of $f(x)$ in $R$. I have managed to prove that this function is injective but do not know how to prove that it is surjective. Can someone help me, please? Thanks so much.
Prove the bijection between the set of homomorphisms and the set of roots
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$\begingroup$
abstract-algebra
polynomials
ring-theory
roots
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0What is the source of the question? A book? It is quite interesting, and I want to read more related to this. – 2017-02-25
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0@feralin It is not from a book, and it seems that this question is completely newly designed rather than picked from a book. But in page 9 of this notes, there is a quite related field version of it:http://www.math.columbia.edu/~rf/galoisnotes.pdf – 2017-02-25
1 Answers
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Given a root $r \in R$ of $f$, let $\varphi$ be the homomorphism given by evaluation at $r$, that is, \begin{align*} \varphi: \mathbb{Z}[x] &\to R\\ g &\mapsto g(r) \, . \end{align*} Then $\varphi$ is a ring homomorphism and $\langle f \rangle \subseteq \ker(\varphi)$, so $\varphi$ descends to a well-defined homomorphism $\overline{\varphi}: \mathbb{Z}[x]/\langle f \rangle \to R$ on the quotient. Moreover, $$ \overline{\varphi}(\overline{x}) = \varphi(x) = r $$ so $r = r_\overline{\varphi}$, as desired.
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0It make some sense to me. But we have never been told that $\phi$ is exacely a evaluation map, how can we assume that? Moreover, how can we conclude the bijection relationship then? – 2017-02-25
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0On this track, I find that given a fixed root $r$ of $f(x)$ in $R$, we can always define the map $\varphi$ to be a evaluation map on $r$ and thus a homomorphism. And by using the mapping property of quotient rings we know that there exist a map $\overline{\varphi}$ that sends the root $\overline{x}$ in the quotient ring to the root $r$ in $R$. Thus we can conclude that for all roots in $R$, there exists a map which send a root $\overline{x}$ in the quotient ring to the root $r$ in $R$. Am I correct? – 2017-02-25
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0I don't understand your first comment. To show surjectivity, you need to show that for each root $r \in R$ of $f$, there is some homomorphism $\varphi: \mathbb{Z}[x] \to R$ such that $r = r_\varphi = \varphi(\overline{x})$. I have produced such a map: the map induced by evaluation at $r$. – 2017-02-25
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0Yes, your second comment is a restatement of the argument in my answer. – 2017-02-25
