I am reading the fourth edition of Real Analysis by Royden. The book provides the following proof that if $f$ and $g$ are measurable functions, then $f+g$ is measurable.
For $x \in E$ if $f(x)+g(x) < c$, then $f(x) < c - g(x)$. By the density of the rational numbers, there exists $q \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that
$f(x) < q < c - g(x)$.
Hence, $\{x \in E : f(x) + g(x)< c\} = \displaystyle\bigcup_{q \in \mathbb{Q}} [ \{x \in E: g(x) Then the fact that the measurable sets are a sigma algebra gives us the result. My only confusion is the statement that$\{x \in E : f(x) + g(x)< c\} = \displaystyle\bigcup_{q \in \mathbb{Q}} [ \{x \in E: g(x) I'm having trouble seeing why this is true.