I'm sure that I'm missing something simple here. Please can you help?
By stereographically projecting from the 'north pole' $(0,0,1)$ of the unit sphere $x^2+y^2+z^2=1$ onto the the plane $z=0$ we get a chart $\alpha_1: S^2\backslash (0,0,1) \to \mathbb R^2$ given by
$$\alpha_1(x,y,z)=\left(\frac{x}{1-z},\frac{y}{1-z}\right)$$
By stereographically projecting from the 'south pole' $(0,0,-1)$ of the unit sphere $x^2+y^2+z^2=1$ onto the the plane $z=0$ we get a chart $\alpha_2: S^2\backslash (0,0,-1) \to \mathbb R^2$ given by
$$\alpha_2(x,y,z) = \left(\frac{x}{1+z},\frac{y}{1+z}\right)$$
I'm reading something about charts $S^2 \to \mathbb C$.
I thought that $S^2 \subset \mathbb C \times \mathbb R$ could be identified with $S^2 \subset \mathbb R^3$ by $\{(a+\mathrm ib,c) \in \mathbb C \times \mathbb R : a^2+b^2+c^2 = 1\}$.
If so then the charts $S^2 \to \mathbb C$ would be given by
$$\psi_1(a,b,c) = \left(\frac{a}{1-c}\right) + \mathrm i \left(\frac{b}{1-c}\right)$$ $$\psi_2(a,b,c) = \left(\frac{a}{1+c}\right) + \mathrm i \left(\frac{b}{1+c}\right)$$
However, the text I'm reading says that the charts have
$$\psi_2(a,b,c) = \left(\frac{a}{1+c}\right) {\bf -} \, \mathrm i \left(\frac{b}{1+c}\right)$$
Any ideas what I'm missing? Thanks in advance.