I wish to prove the infinite cone $T$ (where $T$ is the upper half i.e. $z \geq0$ )is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R^2}$.
Note here that I am considering $T$ as a subset of $\mathbb{R}^3$ with the subspace topology and the standard Euclidean topology on $\mathbb{R^3}$ and $\mathbb{R^2}$ with the standard topology as well.
I have constructed a map $f:T \to \mathbb{R^2}$ as $f((x,y,z))=(x,y)$ (Basically we just project each point vertically down onto the $xy$ plane). And the inverse map $f^{-1}: \mathbb{R^2} \to T$ by $f^{-1}((x,y))=(x,y,(x^2+y^2)^{1/2})$ (this map just projects up until we hit the surface).
Clearly $f$ bijective and I can show $f$ is continuous. But I don't know how to show $f^{-1}$ is continuous (which is the last step I need to show the homeomorpism).
I tried to take an open set in $T$ and show that its preimage was open but I couldn't do it.
Could anyone show me how to proceed?
Thanks!