let $f_n(x)≤ M(x)$ so that $f_n(x)$ is point wise bounded. Now let $M = max (M(x))$ then $f_n(x) ≤ M$ for all x. Wouldn't this make every point wise bounded functions of the form $f_n(x)$ uniformly bounded? We can just take the maximum and bound them all together.
How come some functions are point wise bounded but not uniformly bounded then?