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Given a collection of topological spaces $\{X_a\}_{a∈A}$, the product topology Y is given by $Y := \prod_{a\in A}X_a$. For every $a\in A$ we have the non empty open subset $U_a \subset X_a$.

Show that:

When there are infinitely many indices $a\in A$ such that $U_a \neq X_a$, then $\prod_{a \in A}U_a \subset Y$ is not open.

Q: Does anyone know how to solve this? I've been trying to see what happens when you take the infinite product but I can't figure it out!

Thanks in advance!

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    Can you restate the definition of the product topology, in rigorous mathematical language? Once you do this you won't be far away from a proof.2017-02-24

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I assume this is what you want to prove:

Let $\{X_a\}_{a\in A}$ be a family of topological spaces and $U_a\subset X_a$ proper open subspaces. Prove that $\prod_{a\in A} U_a$ is not open in $\prod_{a\in A} X_a$ with the usual product topology on $\prod_{a\in A} X_a$.

So let $U_a\subset X_a$ be proper (i.e. $U_a\neq X_a$) open subsets and let

$$U=\prod_{a\in A} U_a$$

Assume that $U$ is open, i.e. there is an indexing set $B$ such that

$$U=\bigcup_{b\in B} V_b$$

for a collection $\{V_b\}_{b\in B}$ of base open subsets of $\prod X_a$. So what is a base open subset in the product topology? By the definition for each $b\in B$ we have

$$V_b=\prod_{c\in A} V_{b, c}$$

for some open subsets $V_{b, c}\subseteq X_c$ such that $V_{b, c}=X_c$ for almost all $c\in A$. Now pick a pair of indexes $b'\in B, c'\in A$ such that $V_{b', c'}=X_{c'}$ and take the projection

$$\pi_{c'}:\prod X_i\to X_{c'}$$

Note that $\pi_{c'}(U)=U_{c'}\neq X_{c'}$ by definition of $U$.

On the other hand $\pi_{c'}(V_{b'})=V_{b', c'}=X_{c'}$ (by the choice of $(b', c')$) and since we've assumed that $U=\bigcup V_{b}$ then $\pi_{c'}(U)=X_{c'}$ because image of union is union of images. Contradiction. $\Box$

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    Hi, thank you for your answer! I'm not sure I understand what you mean though. I understand everything until the part "for some open subsets $V_{b,c} = X_{c'}$ with $V_{b,c} = X_c$ for almost all c. What do you mean by for almost all c"? The question does specifically mention that I need to prove this in the case when there are infinitely many indices $a \in A$. Why would they mention it if it's true in general (so if it's not open whether A has finite or infinite many indices? Thanks again!2017-02-26
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    @titusAdam The product topology is defined by the products of the form $\prod U_i$ where $U_i=X_i$ for almost all (i.e. except for the finite number) $i$. So if I have an open set (e.g. $U$), then it has to be a union of such sets. Perhaps I'll add indexing sets to make it more clear.2017-02-26