$\hat\mu$ is defined by $$ \hat\mu(E) = \sup \sum_{j=1}^\infty | \mu(A_j)|$$, over all partitions $\{A_j\}$ of $E$.
I have an exercise saying that $\hat\mu \geq \mu$ and that if $\tau \geq \mu$ then $\tau \geq \hat\mu$ (so, $\hat\mu$ is the smallest one that satisfies this).
However, setting $\mu$ as the opposite of the classic Lebesgue measure over the interval $[0,1]$, it's obvious that the measure $\tau \equiv 0$ is smaller than $\hat\mu$ and bigger than $\mu$. Am I missing something?
I can prove the proposition if I change it to $\hat\mu \geq |\mu|$ and that if $\tau \geq |\mu|$ then $\tau \geq \hat\mu$
Does anyone know if that's the real known theorem about total variation measures? Thanks!