I'm newbie in probability. I'm studying the symmetry property of Standard Normal random variable. Example from the book "Introduction to probability" by Joseph K. Blitzstein and Jessica Hwang page 213 talks about "Symmetry of Z and -Z if Z ~ N(0,1) (Z has normal distribution with mean = 0 and Varience = 1), then -Z ~ N(0,1) as well."
"To see this, note that the CDF of -Z is:
$$P(-Z\le z) = P(Z\ge-z) = 1- \Phi(-z) = \Phi(z)$$
"
The equality above has 4 parts I do not understand the first two on the left which is this part "the CDF of -Z is $P(-Z\le z) = P(Z\ge-z)$"
How can the Z has negative version of it??????
I only study the CDF of Z for example, the definition is F(z) = CDF of Z then $ F(z) = P(Z \le z)$
Which means when I say for example $ F(3) = P(Z \le 3)$ = probability of Z less than or equal to 3, which is a number.
but when speaking about -Z then the CDF is $P(-Z\le z)$ Then for example if z = 3 the CDF of -Z is $ F(3) = P(-Z \le 3)$ if we translate it to english then it is probability of -Z less than or equal to 3, which is none sense???? Can someone please tell me what it really means with consistent mathematical reason step by step explanation?
My second question is about the change from the most left statement to the second left statement which is $P(-Z\le z) = P(Z\ge-z)$ this seems like the author multiply the event inside by -1 why this is mathematically valid? Can we multiply any event by -1? Are we multiply event inside by -1 or we multiply the Random Variable by -1 which effect the event inside the perenthesis? which one is the correct mathematically consistant? Now it seems inconsistent, this is not what mathematic suppose to be.