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In my guess, this question would be definitely non appropriate to be asked. But, I think that this is the only place where I can get an answer. So, I should apologise in advance.

I am a very beginner studying algebraic geometry and intersection theory. For the intersection theory, I am referring the book of Fulton. In there, I can find a notation $X\times Y$ for schemes $X$ and $Y$ over a field, say $k$. Does this mean fibred product over $\mathrm{Spec}(k)$? Or, is there a notion of "product" of schemes in geneal? If then, how is it defined?

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    Product and fibred product can be defined in the category theory. Of course , in the category of schemes, one can define the product of schemes (Using the universal property to define ). But the important thing is the existence, fortunately, for any two schemes, their fibred product exists. Note that in the category of schemes there is an terminal object $Spec(\mathbb{Z})$, and product of any two schemes can be considered as the fibred product of two schemes over $\mathbb{Z}$. So at least finite product of schemes exists.2018-11-27

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If $X, Y$ are schemes over a given scheme $S$, then the fiber product $X \times_S Y$ is the product of $X$ and $Y$ in the category of schemes over $S$.

A scheme $X$ is the same thing as a scheme over $\textrm{Spec } \mathbb{Z}$, since there is exactly one morphism of schemes $X \rightarrow \textrm{Spec } \mathbb{Z}$. Thus the product of $X, Y$ in the category of all schemes exists, and it is $X \times_{\textrm{Spec } \mathbb{Z}} Y$.

If $X$ and $Y$ are given as schemes over $k$, then $X \times Y$ probably means the category of schemes over $\textrm{Spec }k$, although to be precise one would normally write $X \times_k Y$ or $X \times_{\textrm{Spec } k} Y$.

This makes sense to write $X \times Y$ instead of $X \times_k Y$ for two reasons: first, if we are working in a category $\mathscr C$ with two objects $A, B$, then without further explanation, $A \times B$ should mean the product of $A$ and $B$ in the category $\mathscr C$. Thus $X \times Y$ should mean the fiber product of $X$ and $Y$ over $k$, since it seems your book is working in the category of schemes over $k$ at that point.

Second, if you are transferring over classical results from varieties into the language of schemes. If $X, Y$ are (classical) affine varieties over an algebraically closed field $K$, then $X, Y$ are the spaces of maximal ideals of their coordinate rings, and so the underlying set of their product $X \times Y$ in the category of affine varieties can be taken to be their cartesian product.

When you interpret $X$ and $Y$ as schemes $\tilde{X}, \tilde{Y}$ over $K$ (using all of $\textrm{Spec } K[X]$ rather than just $\textrm{Max } K[X]$), the product $\tilde{X \times Y}$ becomes the fiber product $\tilde{X} \times_K \tilde{Y}$.