This is a proof from the book Lectures in Logic and Set Theory: Vol 1. But I cannot understand why this proof is valid.
This is a corollary of "all first order logic is sound" which I understand the proof.
There is another proof of the consistency of first order logic in another book An Introduction to Mathematical Logic and Type Theory: To Truth Through Proof... but it is too long and I forget most of the book so I lost the context...
