Problem:
{$x_n$} is a sequence of positive real numbers that satisfies $x_n\leq\frac {n+1}{n^2}$ for all $n\in\Bbb N$. Prove that the sequence $\{x_n(-1)^n\}$ is convergent.
My thoughts:
I notice that $x_n$ goes to 0 via the squeeze lemma. And since $(-1)^n$ is being multiplied by 0, the whole sequence will just converge to zero. Am I correct in thinking this way? If not, then how would I go about proving this?