Suppose $M,N$ are finite $R$-modules and $a\in R$ is $M$-regular. We then have a short exact sequence $$ 0 \to M \xrightarrow{a} M \to M/aM \to 0$$ which induces the long exact sequence $$ \dots \to \text{Ext}_R^i(M/aM,N) \to \text{Ext}_R^i(M,N) \xrightarrow{a} \text{Ext}_R^i(M,N) \to \dots$$
The question I have is why the map remains multiplication by $a$. The case when $i=0$ is clear, but for larger dimensions I am confused. What is confusing me is that the map on Ext is induced by the maps on the projective resolutions, which as far as I can tell have no relation to the original maps. What am I missing?
As explained in my comment below, taking a projective resolution $P$ of $M$, if $P\to P$ is multiplication by $a$ then we see that $\text{Ext}(a,N) = a$. However, how do we know this is the map that fits into the exact sequence above? Because I do not think $P\to P$ is injective, and the LES is induced by a SES of projective resolutions of $M$ and $M/aM$.