$y$ is a solution to the diff-equation: $\frac{dy}{dt} = \frac{d}{dx}\frac{dy}{dx}$
for $0\le x\le\pi$ and $t\ge 0$.
It also fulfills $y(0,t)=y(\pi,t)=0$ for $t\ge 0$.
I want to show that $\int_{0}^{\pi} (y(x,t))^{2} dx\,\,\,is\, a\, decreasing\, function\,of\,\,t. $
My attempt:
I assume that our function can be written as $y(x,t)=h(x)u(t)$. Then it satisfies the diff equation $u'(t)h(x)=u(t)h''(x)$.
So $\int_{0}^{\pi}(y(x,t))^{2} dx=(u(t))^{2}\int_{0}^{\pi}(h(x))^2 dx$
From the diff equation I get that $h(x)=\frac{u(t)}{u'(t)}h''(x)$.ยจ
So now we have $(u(t))^{2}\int_{0}^{\pi} (\frac{u(t)}{u'(t)})^{2} (h''(x))^{2} dx$.
Using integration by parts, integrating $(h''(x))^{2}$ yields me $-(\frac{(u(t))^{2}}{u'(t)})^{2}\int_{0}^{\pi} h''(x)h'(x) dx$.
And I am stuck here ... anyone has any idea if I can continue from here , or if this proves that it is decreasing?