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I've been looking for proofs of the following well-known theorem that don't appeal to linear-algebraic techniques (matrices/determinants): For $R$ commutative with $1$, any two bases for a free module $M$ over $R$ have equal cardinality.

I found one in Robert Ash's Basic Abstract Algebra, which I quote almost in full.

If $I$ is a maximal ideal of $R$,then $k=R/I$ is a field,and $V =M/IM$ is a vector space over k. [By $IM$ we mean all finite sums $a_ix_i$ with $ai \in I$ and $xi \in M$; thus $IM$ is a submodule of $M$. If $r+I > \in k$ and $x+IM \in M/IM$, we take $(r+I)(x+IM)$ to be $rx + IM$]

Now if $(x_i)$ is a basis for $M$, let $\bar{x_i} = xi+IM$. Since the $x_i$ span $M$, the $\bar{x_i}$ span $M/IM$. If $\sum\bar{a_i}\bar{x_i} = 0$, then $a_ix_i \in IM$. Thus $\sum a_ix_i = \sum b_jx_j$ with $b_j \in I$. Since the $x_i$ form a basis, we must have $a_i = b_j$ for some $j$. Consequently $a_i \in I$, so that $\bar{a_i} =0$ in $k$. We conclude that the $\bar{x_i}$ form a basis for $V$ over $k$, and since the dimension of $V$ over $k$ depends only on $M, R$ and $I$, and not on a particular basis for $M$, the result follows.

The part in bold is confusing me. How exactly does the result follow from this?

  • 1
    You are looking for a proof not appealing to methods of linear algebra, but you're asking us about a proof that reduces to the case of vector spaces over a field. How do you think *that* case is handled?2017-02-22
  • 0
    I don't know what you mean. That case is handled as in the proof above. I just wanted a proof without matches and determinants.2017-02-22
  • 1
    I would consider techniques used to prove the cardinality of a basis of a vector space is well-defined, whether it uses matrices or not, to be linear algebra. Whatever.2017-02-22

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The definition of $V$ was given before introducing a basis $(x_i)$ of $M$. Therefore the dimension $d$ of $V$ is a well-defined number. Now if $(x_i)$ is any basis of $M$, then $(\overline{x_i})$ is a basis of $V$, hence has cardinality $d$. Therefore all bases $(x_i)$ of $M$ have the same cardinality $d$.

  • 0
    I understand that $(\bar{x_i})$ has cardinality $d$, but why must the cardinality of $(x_i)$ equal $d$?2017-02-22
  • 0
    The elements of $(x_i)$ and $(\overline{x_i})$ correspond to each other bijectively.2017-02-22
  • 0
    Ok, could you please offer a brief explanation/argument for why that is? I'm sure it's obvious but I'd like to fully understand.2017-02-22
  • 0
    For example, if $x_1, x_2, x_3$ is a basis of $M$, then $\overline{x_1}, \overline{x_2}, \overline{x_3}$ are defined as the respective images of $x_1, x_2, x_3$ in $M/IM$.2017-02-22
  • 0
    Right, I guess my question is this: Is it possible that $\bar{x_i}=\bar{x_j}$ for some $i\ne j$? That is, could we "lose" some element after taking images?2017-02-22
  • 1
    There are two ways to consider collections of vectors which may or may not be a basis in a vector space. First, as a set $\{v_1, \dots, v_n\}$, and second, as an ordered list $(v_1,\dots,v_n)$, also called a "family" of vectors. In the first convention, ordering doesn't matter and repetition is impossible. In the second, ordering does matter and you might have repetition. Of course, if there is repetition, then the family can't possibly be linearly independent. For example, the family $(v,w,v)$ isn't linearly independent because $1v + 0w +(-1)v = 0$. In the present situation, the basis $(x_i)$2017-02-22
  • 1
    is most likely being considered as a family (this being suggested by the use of parentheses rather than braces). The fact that the family $(\overline{x_i})$ is a basis automatically entails that there can be no repetition of vectors. The cardinality of the basis is then simply the cardinality of the indexing set. The proof that there is no repetition is subsumed within the proof of linear independence and doesn't need to be mentioned separately.2017-02-22
  • 0
    Great explanation. Thank you!2017-02-22
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It should be noted that in fact $i\neq j \implies x_i+IM\neq x_j+IM$ is a special case of the linear independence of $\{x_i+IM\}_{i\in I}$. For convenience here is the same argument with a different packaging. The proof will be based on the special case of vector spaces:

Theorem: If $V$ is a $k$-vector space and $\mathcal{X},\mathcal{Y}$ are two $k$-bases of $V$, then $\operatorname{card}(\mathcal{X})=\operatorname{card}(\mathcal{Y})$.


For preliminaries we have the following:

Let $\operatorname{sca}:R\times M\to M$ define the $R$-module structure of $M$, and $I\in\mathcal{P}_{\unlhd}(R)$. Then

  1. $IM:=\bigcup_{n\geq1}\left\{\sum_{k=1}^n \operatorname{sca}(a_k,m_k)\vert a_k\in I,m_k\in M\right\}$ is a submodule of $M$ with $ \operatorname{sca}\vert_{R\times IM}$.
  2. That being the case the quotient group $M/IM$ too has an $R$-module structure, given by\begin{align} \widetilde{\operatorname{sca}}:&R\times M/IM\to M/IM\\ &(a,m+IM)\mapsto \operatorname{sca}(a,m)+IM \end{align}
  3. Finally (since $I\subseteq (M/IM)^\circ$) we have an $R/I$-module structure on $M/IM$ given by\begin{align} \overline{\operatorname{sca}}:&R/I\times M/IM\to M/IM\\ &(a+I,m+IM)\mapsto \widetilde{\operatorname{sca}}(a,m)=\operatorname{sca}(a,m)+IM. \end{align}
  4. In the case when $I$ is maximal $R/I$ is a field, hence $M/IM$ becomes an $R/I$-vector space with $\overline{\operatorname{sca}}$ as the scalar multiplication.

To make it less painful to read the actual proof I will not be using $\operatorname{sca}$ and its kin from now on, as is customary.


Claim: Let $R$ be a nonzero commutative ring and $M$ an $R$-module. Then any two $R$-bases of $M$ have the same cardinality.

Proof of Claim: Let $\mathcal{X}:=\{x_j\}_{j\in J}$ be an $R$-basis of $M$, $I\in\mathcal{P}_{\unlhd}(R)\setminus\{R\}$ be maximal. Set $\overline{\mathcal{X}}:=\mathcal{X}+IM=\{x_j+IM\}_{j\in J}$. Then $\overline{\mathcal{X}}$ is an $R/I$-basis of $M/IM$:

  • To see that $\overline{\mathcal{X}}$ spans $M/IM$, let $m+IM\in M/IM,$ i.e. $m\in M$.

\begin{align} &\implies \exists \mbox{ finite } J_0\subseteq J, \{a_j\}_{j\in J_0}\subseteq R: m=\sum_{j\in J_0}a_jx_j\\ &\implies m+IM=\left(\sum_{j\in J_0}a_jx_j\right)+IM=\sum_{j\in J_0}(a_j+I)(x_j+IM), \checkmark. \end{align}

  • Next we show that $\overline{\mathcal{X}}$ is $R/I$-linearly independent. Let $J_0\subseteq J$ be finite and $\{a_j\}_{j\in J_0}\subseteq R: \sum_{j\in J_0}(a_j+I)(x_j+IM)=IM$.

\begin{align} \implies \sum_{j\in J_0}a_jx_j\in IM \implies \exists \{b_k\}_{k=1}^n\subseteq I,\exists \{m_k\}_{k=1}^n\subseteq M:\sum_{j\in J_0}a_jx_j=\sum_{k=1}^n b_km_k. \end{align}

Since $\mathcal{X}$ is an $R$-basis of $M$, $\forall k,\exists$ finite $J_k\subseteq J, \exists\{c_j^k\}_{j\in J_k}\subseteq R: m_k=\sum_{j\in J_k}c_j^kx_k$. Setting $J':=\bigcup_{k}J_k$, we have $\forall k:m_k=\sum_{j\in J'}c_j^k\chi_{J_k}(j)x_j$.

\begin{align} &\implies \sum_{j\in J_0}a_jx_j=\sum_{k=1}^n b_km_k=\sum_{k=1}^nb_k\left(\sum_{j\in J'}c_j^k\chi_{J_k}(j)x_j\right) = \sum_{j\in J'} \underbrace{\left(\sum_{k=1}^n b_kc_j^k\chi_{J_k}(j)\right)}_{=:d_j\in I} x_j \\ &\implies 0 = \sum_{j\in J_0\setminus J'}a_jx_j + \sum_{j\in J_0\cap J'}(a_j-d_j)x_j +\sum_{j\in J'\setminus J_0}(-d_j)x_j\\ &\implies \forall j\in J_0\setminus J': a_j=0\in I;\;\forall j\in J_0\cap J': a_j=d_j\in I;\;\forall j\in J'\setminus J_0:d_j=0\\ &\implies \forall j\in J_0: a_j\in I \implies \forall j\in J_0: a_j+I=I,\checkmark. \end{align}

Next observe that $\operatorname{card}(\mathcal{X})=\operatorname{card}(\overline{\mathcal{X}})$:

  • $\operatorname{card}(\mathcal{X})\geq\operatorname{card}(\overline{\mathcal{X}})$ by construction.
  • If $x_i+IM=x_j+IM$ but $i\neq j$, then $x_i-x_j\in IM$, which implies by the above argument for $R/I$-linear independence that $1\in I$, but $I$ is maximal, $\unicode{x21af}$. Thus $\operatorname{card}(\mathcal{X})\leq\operatorname{card}(\overline{\mathcal{X}})$ as well.

Finally let $\mathcal{Y}$ be an arbitrary $R$-basis of $M$. Then we have

$$\operatorname{card}(\mathcal{Y})=\operatorname{card}(\overline{\mathcal{Y}})=\operatorname{card}(\overline{\mathcal{X}})=\operatorname{card}(\mathcal{X}),$$

where the second equality follows from the theorem that addresses the vector space case, which applies by 4 above.


Note: For future reference this is also Exercise III.2 from Lang's Algebra, 3e (p. 165) (where the context is to generalize the result from vector spaces to free modules over nonzero commutative rings, hence my argument).

Note 2: After all this maybe it's a good idea also to observe that the converse is not true, even in the case of vector spaces, e.g. considering $\Bbb{R}[X]$ as an $\Bbb{R}$-vector space, we have $\operatorname{card}(\{X^n\vert n\geq0\})=\operatorname{card}(\{X^n\vert n\geq1\})$.