So I'm attempting to compute the $\chi_{y}$ genus of a one-dimensional torus. Even though I know it's certainly not zero, there are two reasons why I convinced myself it was; one of them probably very basic, the other to do with Atiyah-Bott localization.
Before getting there, let $X$ be a compact, complex manifold with formal Chern roots $x_{i}$. The Hirzebruch $\chi_{y}$ genus is given by
$$\chi_{y}(X) = \int_{X} \prod_{i} (1+ye^{-x_{i}}) \frac{x_{i}}{1-e^{-x_{i}}}$$
Now, for a one-dimensional torus, there is only one factor in that product. Moreover, its Chern root is zero since the tangent bundle is trivial. However, one cannot naively set $x=0$, since you end up with a indeterminate $0/0$ expression. Rather, I expanded the integrand:
$$(1+ye^{-x})\frac{x}{1-e^{-x}}=(y+1) + \frac{1}{2} x (y-1) + \cdots$$
Since the integral is a pairing of homology and cohomology classes, we only get contributions from one of those terms leaving,
$$\chi_{y}(X) = \frac{1}{2}(y-1)\int_{X} x $$
If that integral were one, I think that would be the right answer, but why isn't that integral zero!? That Chern root should be zero, and moreover, the integral of the top Chern class is the Euler characteristic which is zero. Where exactly am I overlooking something here?
Localization Argument: The other reason I convinced myself this should vanish, is that a torus acts freely on itself. So I thought that by the Atiyah-Bott localization, if there are no fixed points, then the integral simply vanishes. Am I overlooking something in equivariant cohomology here?