I'd like to know the definitions of $\int_{[0,\tau]}X\,dM$ and $\int 1_{[0,\tau]}X\,dM$, where $\tau$ is a stopping time, $X\in L^2(\mathbb{R}_+\times\Omega,\mathcal{P},\mu_M)$, $M$ is a right-continuous martingale, $\mu_M$ is the measure on the predictable $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal{P}$ which is defined (uniquely) by its behavior on the predictable rectangles: $\mu_M(1_{\{0\}\times F})=0$ for all $F\in\mathcal{F}_0$, and $\mu_M(1_{(s,t]\times F_s})=1_{F_s}(M_t-M_s)^2$ for all $F_s\in\mathcal{F_s}$. $Y_t\equiv\int_{[0,t]}X\,dM$.
In the text that presented these terms (Chung and Williams' Stochastic Integration), a very similar definition if $\tau$ is just a constant (p. 39):

But I suspect that the exact definition is not quite the same, since Theorem 2.7.iii would be immediate:
In the proof of Theorem 2.7.iii, we introduce $\tau_n=2^{-n}[2^n\tau+1]$, and note we can write $Y_{\tau_n}=\sum_{k=0}^{N_n}1_{\tau\in[\frac{k}{2^n},\frac{k+1}{2^n})\times \{\tau\ge\frac{k+1}{n}\}}Y_{(k+1)2^{-n}}$. Then since $\tau_n\searrow\tau$ and $Y$ is right-continuous, we have $Y_{\tau_n}\to Y_\tau$ a.s. Is this how we define $Y_\tau\equiv\int_{[0,\tau]}X\,dM$? Or is $Y_\tau$ defined some other way already?
I am hoping for a clarification about what $\int_{[0,\tau]}X\,dM$ and $\int 1_{[0,\tau]}X\,dM$ mean. Thanks a bunch!
