Unfortunately you can't give sense to the Fourier transform of $f(t) = 5 + H(t-2)$ unless you interpret it in the sense of (Schwartz) distributions.
It might be useful for an engineer to write, for example,
$$
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} 5\cdot e^{-i t \omega } \,dt = 10 \pi \delta \tag{1}
$$
but since the integral on the left-hand side of $(1)$ does not converge, this has no mathematical sense. However if we see the constant function $t\mapsto5$ as an element of the space $\mathcal{S}'(\Bbb{R})$ of tempered distributions, then it is true that
$$
\mathcal{F}\{5\}(\omega) = 10\pi\delta \tag{2}
$$
Here $(2)$ has a precise meaning, but one must know some distribution theory in order to understand it.
Now, one learns that
$
\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\phantom{-}\displaystyle\mathcal{F}\{H\}(\omega) = \pi \delta -i$ $\displaystyle\operatorname{p.v.}\left(\frac{1}{\omega}\right)$
We can now find the Fourier transform of $f$ by making use (as hinted in the comments) of the following time shifting property.
Proposition: Let $u\in \mathcal{S}'(\mathbb{R})$ and $a\in\Bbb{R}$. Then
$$
\mathcal{F}\{\tau_a u\}(\omega) = e^{-i a \omega}\mathcal{F}\{u\}(\omega)
$$
Here $\tau_au := u \circ f$ where $f(t) := t-a$.
We obtain
\begin{align}
\mathcal{F}\{5+H(t-2)\} &= \mathcal{F}\{5\} + \mathcal{F}\{H(t-2)\}\\
&=10\pi\delta+\pi e^{-2i\omega}\delta-i e^{-2i\omega} \operatorname{p.v.}\left(\frac{1}{\omega}\right) \\
&=10\pi\delta+\pi\delta-i e^{-2i\omega} \operatorname{p.v.}\left(\frac{1}{\omega}\right)
\end{align}
Note. Be careful interpreting results from Wolfram Alpha (which are wrong sometimes!).
The Fourier transform documentation says (just after equation $(16)$) that Wolfram Alpha adopted the convention
$$
\mathcal{F}\{f\} := \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(t) e^{i\omega t} \,dt
$$
The answer obtained here is for
$$
\mathcal{F}\{f\} := \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(t) e^{-i\omega t} \,dt
$$
The "scrap" that Wolfram Alpha "spits out" is correct if you interpret the $\displaystyle\frac{1}{\omega}$ in $\displaystyle\frac{i e^{2 i \omega}}{\sqrt{2\pi}\omega}$ as the distribution $\displaystyle\operatorname{p.v.}\left(\frac{1}{\omega}\right)$.