Is it possible to compute the inverse of the following function
$f(w)=-1+\dfrac{\cos((\frac{1}{2}+m)w)}{\cos(w)}$
when $0 \leq w \leq 2\pi$.
The inverse of $-1+\dfrac{\cos((\frac{1}{2}+m)w)}{\cos(w)}$
1
$\begingroup$
calculus
algebra-precalculus
trigonometry
inverse-function
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0For a function to be invertible it must simultaneously be injective as well as surjective.Have you checked for this? – 2017-02-21
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0Surjectivity is not important since we can choose the domain. – 2017-02-21
1 Answers
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It is not necessarily invertible on the interval $[0,2\pi]$ as shown in this example when $m=1$. You may try using other values of $m$ or other intervals at this desmos.com link.
