My first post here and I have got 2 questions to ask from you guys.
I'm following the derivation shown in this AIAA paper. (page 4 - lower bottom) http://www.rcgroups.com/forums/showatt.php?attachmentid=4866372
where,
$V(z) = U\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\Gamma [sin\theta_1 - sin\theta_2]}{ (4\pi R) } dy $
is shown to be equal to;
$V(z) = U\frac{\Gamma [l_1 -l_2]}{ (4\pi R) }$
my understanding is, if $y$ is taken to be starting from $y=0$ point,
$sin\theta_1$ cannot be $\frac{y}{l_1}$ and $sin\theta_2$ should be $\frac{y-b/2}{l_2}$
Even apart from that shouldnt , $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{y}{l_1} dy $ be $0$
Can you please elaborate how the author has derived second formula from the first one ?
Second question I posted in physics forum. https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/313394/biot-savart-vortex-line-segment-parallel-to-a-plane
Any input on these questions are much appreciated.