I've recently (yesterday) started to studying complex analysis on my own. So i came across this question at the end of the first chapter " Let $G$ be an open set in $ \mathbb{C} $ . Is $\{ z : z \in G \lor \bar z \in G \}$ open?
My attempt :
By the definition a set is open if $ A \subseteq \mathbb{C} \land z \in A $ then A is open if there exists $ \mathcal D( z ; r ) \subseteq A $ , where $ r > 0 $ and $ \mathcal D ( z ; r)$ is an open disc.
I think, for the $ z \in G $ case, it's open as we can find some $ \mathcal D ( z ; \delta ) $ where $\delta$ is $ 0 < \delta < |z-a| - r $ .
But can't make any comment on it's conjugate.