Def.: let be $A,R$ sets, we define $$ \operatorname{dom}(R):=\{x| \exists y : (x,y) \in R\} \\ \operatorname{cod}(R):=\{x| \exists y :(y,x)\in R\} \\ \operatorname{field}(R):=\operatorname{dom}(R)\cup \operatorname{cod}(R) \\ R \text{ is reflexive in }A \text{ if } \,\forall x \in A:(x,x)\in R \\ R \text{ is symmetric in }A \text{ if } \,\forall x,y \in A:(x,y)\in R \to (y,x)\in R \\ R \text{ is transitive in }A \text{ if } \,\forall x,y,z\in A:(x,y)\in R \wedge (y,z)\in R \to (x,z)\in R \\ R \text{ is reflexive} \text{ if } \,R \text{ is reflexive in}\operatorname{field}(R) \\ R \text{ is symmetric} \text{ if } \,R \text{ is symmetric in}\operatorname{field}(R)\\ R \text{ is transitive } \text{if } \,R \text{ is transitive in}\operatorname{field}(R) $$
Now, we have $A:=\{4,5,6\}$ and $R:=\{(4,4),(5,5),(4,5),(5,4)\}$, therefore:
- $R$ is not reflexive in $A$ because $(6,6) \notin R$
- $R$ is symmetric in $A$
- $R$ is transitive in $A$
([$R$ is symmetric in $A$ $\wedge$ $R$ is transitiv in $A$ $\to$ $R$ is reflexiv in $A$] is generally false, and you have an example)
But:
- $ \operatorname{dom}(R)= \operatorname{cod}(R)= \operatorname{field}(R)=\{4,5\}$
- $R$ is reflexiv (in $\operatorname{field}(R)$)
- $R$ is symmetric (in $\operatorname{field}(R)$)
- $R$ is transitiv (in $\operatorname{field}(R)$)
([$R$ is symmetric $\wedge$ $R$ is transitiv $\to$ $R$ is reflexiv] is true, but the converse generally is false, an example $R^´:=\{(1,1),(0,1),(0,0)\}$)
Why $R$ is symmetric and transitive in $A$? For example, let be $4,6 \in A$ and I prove that $(4,6) \in R \to (6,4) \in R$ and $(4,6) \in R \wedge (6,4) \in R \to (4,4)$ are true, but it is vacuously symmetric and transitive by def of "$\to$" (see ex.1, ex.2), similary with $(5,6)$, $(6,5)$...