I am new to topology and have just encountered a definition of open sets:
Let $T$ be a topology on a set $X$, any element in $T$ is called an open subset.
But in the earlier analysis course, the definition of open set is:
For E as a subset of a metric space $X,d$, E is open if for all $x$ belongs to $E$, exists $\epsilon>0$ such that $B_\epsilon(x)$ is a subset of $E$.
I cannot see the connection between these two definitions so far. As both of them define the concept of open sets, I think they should be equivalent or at least consistent. So could someone tell me to see if they consists?
Thanks so much!