It's actually just as typical to write
$$\mu \left(\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb N} A_n \right)=\sum_{n \in \mathbb N} \mu (A_n).$$
The real meaning behind this is the notion of
summing over sets: Let $S$ be a set, and let $f:S \to [0,\infty]$ be a function, then we can formally define
$$\sum_{s \in S} := \sup\{f(s_1)+...+f(s_n) : n \in \mathbb N\}$$
(or alternatively, that $\{s_1,...,s_n\}$ is a countable subset of $s$, so we are taking a supremum over all partial sums.
This is known as countable additivity, but the index set is countable countable in the definition, to see why, perhaps see the definition of a $\sigma$-algebra.
Also note that this would be a poorly defined "sum" if we allowed negative terms, since conditionally convergent sums depend on the way we choose subsets. Here is a quick proof that it does not matter which notion you prefer:
Let $f$ be as before. It is clear that $$\sum_{n \in \mathbb N}f(n) \geq \sum_{n=1}^{N} f(n)$$
for all $N \in \mathbb N$, so we have that
$$\sum_{n \in \mathbb N}f(n) \geq \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} f(n).$$
On the other hand, let $\{n_1,..,n_k\}$ be a finite set. Choose $N$ to be larger than any integer in this set. Then
$$f(n_1)+\dots f(n_k) \leq \sum_{n=1}^{N} f(n) \leq \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} f(n)$$
for all finite subsets, implying the reverse inequality.