Concerning the above proof of how to show that AC implies Zorn's lemma, there is just one thing that I don't get.
Namely, they say that the definition of $F$ implies immediately $(1)$, but I don't get why $F(\alpha) Here are the references: http://www.math.uni-bonn.de/ag/logik/teaching/2016WS/Aktuelles_Skript.pdf (Pages 28 & 29)
