A promising transformation is
$$Y=\phi(X)=aX+b.$$
The question is: how to choose $a$ and $b$ so that $\sigma_Y^2=\sigma^2$ and $\mu_Y=\mu.$
Let's calculate the new variance first
$$\sigma_Y^2=E[(aX+b)^2]-E^2[aX+b]=$$
$$=a^2E[X^2]+2ab\mu+b^2-a^2\mu^2-2a\mu b-b^2=a^2\left(E[X^2]-\mu^2\right)=a^2(\sigma^2+\eta^2)\tag 1$$
Then, the new expectation
$$\mu_Y=E[aX+b]=a\mu+b.\tag 2$$
We want that the new variance equal $\sigma^2$. From $(1)$ we have to solve the following equation:
$$a^2(\sigma^2+\eta^2)=\sigma^2.$$
So,
$$a^2=\frac{\sigma^2}{\sigma^2+\eta^2}.$$
And we want to keep the original $\mu.$ That is, from $(2)$ and $(1)$:
$$\mu=a\mu+b=\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{\sigma^2+\eta^2}}\mu+b.$$
So,
$$b=\mu\left(1-\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{\sigma^2+\eta^2}}\right).$$
The solution given above took it granted that $Y=aX+b$ is of normal distribution if $X$ is of the same. Below we'll show that this the case.
If we have a function $y=ax+b$ then the inverse is
$$x=\phi(y)=\frac{y-b}{a}.$$
Now, following the OP's suggestion with this $\phi(y)$, we get
$$f_Y(y) = f_X\left(\frac{y-b}a\right)\frac1a=\frac 1{a\sqrt{2\pi(\sigma^2+\eta^2})}e^{\frac{\left(\frac{y-b}a-\mu\right)^2}{2\left(\sigma^2+\eta^2\right)}}.$$
We want
$$\frac 1{\sqrt{(\sigma^2+\eta^2})}\frac1a=\frac1{\sigma}.$$
Thus
$$ a=\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{(\sigma^2+\eta^2})}$$
and, also
$$\frac{\left(\frac{y-b}a-\mu\right)^2}{2\left(\sigma^2+\eta^2\right)}=\frac{(y-b-a\mu)^2}{2a^2(\sigma^2+\eta^2)}=\frac{(y-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}$$
where $a$ works fine for the denominator and we need
to secure that
$$b+a\mu=\mu.$$
for the numerator.
So,
$$b=\mu(1-a).$$