Let $f\in L^{p} (0, 2 \pi) (1\leq p < \infty.)$
How to show: $I_n = \int_{0}^{2\pi } \sin (nx) f (x) dx\to 0$ as $n\to \infty.$ (In other words, $f_n(x) =\sin (nx)$ converges to 0 weakly in $L^{p'}$)
My Thoughts: I guess, I should prove for first for the dense class in $L^p.$ If suppose, $I_n = \int_{0}^{2\pi } \sin (nx) p(x) dx\to 0$ as $n\to \infty,$ where $p\in A$, $\bar{A}=L^p$ (dense class). But then ,how the general case follows?
How should I show: $\int_{0}^{2\pi} |\sin (nx)|^p dx >0 $?
Motivation: This says that $f_n$ converges to 0 in $L^p$ weakly but not strongly.