Here is the definition of Markov kernel I am reading from this paper, https://arxiv.org/pdf/1410.5110.pdf, it defines the Markov kernel as:
A Markov kernel, $\tau$, is a map from an element of the sample space and the $\sigma$-algebra to a probability:
$\tau: Q \times \mathcal{B}(Q) \rightarrow [0,1]$
such that the kernel is a measurable function in the first argument,
$\tau(\cdot, A):Q\rightarrow Q, \forall A \in \mathcal{B}(Q)$,
and a probability measure in the second argument,
$\tau(q, \cdot): \mathcal{B}(Q) \rightarrow [0, 1], \forall q \in Q$.
My question is about the first claim, why it is a map from $Q \rightarrow Q$?