I need help understanding the following proof:
Prove that $\Bbb Q$ is dense in $\Bbb R$, i.e.
$$\forall \varepsilon>0,\forall x\in\Bbb R, \ (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon)\land \Bbb Q\neq \emptyset.$$
Let's assume the opposite:
$\exists\varepsilon>0, \exists x\in\Bbb R, \forall q\in\Bbb Q, (q\leq x-\varepsilon)\lor (x+\varepsilon\leq q)$.
Let $q_1\leq x-\varepsilon$ and $x+\varepsilon\leq q_2$. Let $n\in\Bbb N$ such that $2n\varepsilon>q_2-q_1$ and let $\alpha_k=q_1+\frac{k}{n}(q_2-q_1)\in\Bbb Q (k=0,1,...,n-1,n)$. Let $1\leq k_0
I'm completely lost. Can someone tell me what's the idea behind this proof?