According to the definition, a function $f$ is computable is
$1)$ $\forall x \in \text{Dom}(f)\ \exists\ \text{Algorithm} : f\ \text{returns}\ f(x)$.
$2)$ otherwise, $f$ never stops.
For the moment I have two ideas, but not sure of any of those.
FIRST IDEA:
This is quite simple. From the definition, it wouldn't matter whether $f$ is not increasing/decreasing, since for some $x \in \mathbb{N}$ the program would return $f(x)$ or it keeps going otherwise. So it would be a computable function anyway.
SECOND IDEA:
Here I brought the concept of bijective function. I'm not sure if this is necessary/allowed of it is even an implicit assumption of the nature of the function $f$. Well,
If $f$ is bijective, then for $f$ to be:
$a)$ nondecreasing: It has to be is strictly increasing for it to be computable. Otherwise $\exists x_1, x_2 \in \mathbb{N}: x_1 < x_2: f(x_1) = f(x_2)$, but this would imply that $f$ is not bijective.
$b)$ nonincreasing: As above, $f$ has to be strictly decreasing in order to be bijective. But in this case, considering that $f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$, we have that $\exists x' \in \mathbb{N}: \forall x > x' \implies f(x) = f(x')$ (we keep in mind that $\lim_{x\to \infty} f(x) = 1)$.
So under this assumption $f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ would be computable only if it is an strictly increasing functions.
I'd appreciate any help with this.