Suppose that I have a real-valued function $f$ that is in $L^{2}(\mathbb{R}^d)$ but not in $L^{1}(\mathbb{R}^d)$. It is known that $\mathcal{F}^{-1}(f) \in L^{p}(\mathbb{R}^d)$ for all $p \in \mathbb{N}$. I want to know if this is sufficient enough to deduce that the expression
$$\displaystyle \| f \ast f \|_{2}$$
is finite. Since $f$ is in $L^2$, then by Plancherel's theorem we have
$$\|f \ast f\|_{2} = \| \mathcal{F}(f \ast f) \|_2,$$
where $\mathcal{F}$ denotes the Fourier transform. I'd like to use the convolution theorem at this point, but as far as I understand, we would need $f$ to be in $L^1$. This suggests that $f$ does not have a Fourier transform in the traditional sense. Where can we go from here?
It is also known that $f$ is the Fourier transform of a characteristic function. In general, it is not true that $f \ast f \in L^{2}(\mathbb{R}^d)$. But for which functions does it hold?