First of all, I don't have much rep to spend over here, but I gotta lot more at the DSP SE. So if you wanna earn some rep at the DSP SE, please go to my question over there because tomorrow I am gonna hang the maximum of 500 point bounty onto it. I can't get away with that here although if someone votes me up on this question (or something else I have done here), I can hang a bounty of 350 onto this question in a couple days.
So I have a function of the form:
$$ f(x) = \ln\left(\arctan\left(\alpha \, e^{x} \right) \right) - \ln\left(\arctan\left( \alpha \, e^{-x}\right) \right) $$
What I want to do is invert $f(x)$ (but I know I can't do it exactly with a nice closed form). I have already done a first-order approximation and i want to bump it up to a third-order approximation. And this has become a sorta copulating female canine, even though it should be straight forward.
Now this has something to do with the Lagrange Inversion Theorem which I asked about before and I only want to take it to one more term than I have.
We know from above that $f(x)$ is an odd-symmetry function:
$$ f(-x) = -f(x) $$
This means $f(0)=0$ and all even-order terms of the Maclaurin series will be zero:
$$ y = f(x) = a_1 x + a_3 x^3 + ... $$
The inverse function is also odd symmetry, goes through zero, and can be expressed as a Maclaurin series
$$ x = g(y) = b_1 y + b_3 y^3 + ... $$
and if we know what $a_1$ and $a_3$ are of $f(x)$, then we have a good idea what $b_1$ and $b_3$ must be:
$$ b_1=\frac{1}{a_1} \quad \quad \quad \quad b_3 = -\frac{a_3}{a_1^4} $$
Now, I am able to calculate the derivative of $f(x)$ and evaluate it at zero and I get $a_1$ and $b_1$ as a nice function of $\alpha$. But I am having a bitch of a time getting $a_3$ and therefore $b_3$. Can someone do this? I'd even settle for a solid expression for the third derivative of $f(x)$ evaluated at $x=0$.
Feel free to go over to the DSP site and earn some rep over there.