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Let $A$ and $B$ be two sets. If I prove that $a \notin B$ for all $a \in A$, can I say that $A \cap B = \emptyset$?

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    Prove by contradiction!!!2017-02-19

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Yes. If you prove that $a\in A \Rightarrow a\notin B$, then $A\subseteq B^c$, and that means $$A\cap B \subseteq B^c \cap B =\varnothing$$ so $A\cap B =\varnothing$.

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    Okey, good answer. Thank you very much.2017-02-18