I have the function: $$ f(z) = \frac{z^2 + 1}{z(1-z)}$$
Which I have to show that it is analytic on $\mathbb{C}\setminus \{0,1\}$ (from definition) so I must write it in the form: $$\sum_n a_n (z-z_0)^n$$
I can't use the fact that it is holomorphic because we haven't taken that rule yet.
I have managed to write $f$ as: $$f(z) = 1 - \frac{1}{z} + 2\frac{1}{1-z}$$
Then $$\frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{z_0\left(1 + \frac{z-z_0}{z_0}\right)} = \frac{1}{z_0}\sum_n \left(\frac{z-z_0}{z_0}\right)^n$$ using the property of geometric series, and: $$\frac{1}{1-z} = \sum_n z^n$$ also using the geometric series property.
So I end up with: $$f(z) = 1 - \frac{1}{z_0}\sum_n \left(\frac{z-z_0}{z_0}\right)^n + 2\sum_n z^n$$
That's the closest I got to an answer.
Any help on this question is much appreciated