I'm taking a course in general relativity (differential geometry).
Assume a smooth manifold $M$, where $x$ is a chart map. The following map (tangent vector) is defined: $$\frac{\delta }{\delta x^i}|_{p\in M}:C^\infty(M) \to \mathbb R$$ $$\frac{\delta }{\delta x^i}|_{p\in M}(f):=\delta_i{(f\circ x^{-1})}(x(p))$$
However, then the symbol is generalized using $TM=\{v_p | p\in M,v_p:C^\infty(M)\to \mathbb R \}$ as follows: $$\frac{\delta }{\delta x^i}:M\to TM$$ $$p \mapsto \frac{\delta}{\delta x^i}|_p$$
This means that $\frac{\delta }{\delta x^i}$ is a map that takes a point on the manifold, and outputs a tangent vector.
Here is my question:
However, the lecturer then continues and writes down $\frac{\delta }{\delta x^i}(f)$, where $f$ is a function on the manifold. This notation seems to not square with the definitions. Because now it is suddenly taking a function, whereas it was defined as taking a point on the manifold. Of course if we think loosely about this, the notation is reasonable, since $\frac{\delta }{\delta x^i}(f)$ outputs a map $M \to \mathbb R$, and I understand the meaning of this.
But from a strict mathematical point of view, is this notation meaningful? Are we simply allowed to insert an object into a map $x$ that is not the input of the map $x$ itself, but of the map that the map $x$ outputs?