I'm not even sure where to start or how to get to proving this. So far what I did isn't much, but
Assume $A \subseteq B$ and let $x,y \in A \times C$, then $x \in A$ and $y \in C$.
Do I then go on to claim that $z,y \in B \times C$ since for the first part we already stated that $y \in C$? If so, where do I go from there?