I can show that $\forall x \phi \vdash \exists x \phi$ through a direct deduction as follows, using axioms as defined in Enderton
$(\forall x) \phi$ by hypothesis.
$ (\forall x) \phi \rightarrow \phi$, Axiom.
$ \phi$, modus ponens on lines 1 and 2.
$(\forall x)\neg \phi \rightarrow \neg \phi$, Axiom.
$ ((\forall x) \neg \phi \rightarrow \neg \phi )\rightarrow ( \phi \rightarrow (\exists x) \phi)$, Axiom (tautology).
$ \phi \rightarrow (\exists x) \phi$, modus ponens on lines 4 and 5.
$(\exists x) \phi$, modus ponens on lines 3 and 6.
However, at this point, I now need to invoke the deduction theorem in order to conclude that $\vdash \forall x \phi \rightarrow \exists x \phi$. I want to avoid metalogical results and be purely syntactic. I know that you can prove the deduction theorem through a direct deduction, but I'm wondering how I can adjust my specific proof directly to get the result through just axioms and modus ponens.
I think that if I can show $\vdash \forall \phi \rightarrow ( \phi \rightarrow (\exists x) \phi)$, I could apply the $T$ rule. But I'm not sure. Help appreciated.